United States Politics: ∆τ_i*ε*φ*m_i<0 where ε=4 and φ=0.25

[Uncle]

Is it necessary to specifically exclude paedophilia when that is specifically illegal AND doesn't really fall under the definition of sexual orientation as written anyway?

acts are illegal, but is professing an attraction illegal? you know, just saying that's your orientation without having actually done anything, and asking for recognition or privileges on that basis? "I was fired because I said this, and that's discrimination based on sexual orientation, I deserve compensation?"

and why would you remove clarifying language that's already there? what harm was it doing?